At Paul’s conversion in Acts 9:7 it says that the men with Paul heard the voice of the Lord also. But when Paul gives his testimony in Acts 22:9, he says "They heard not the voice". Is this a mistranslation? Please explain.

In Acts 9:4 Paul heard the voice and distinct words of Christ saying to him, "Saul, Saul, why persecutest thou me?" In Verse 7, "And the men which journeyed wth him stood speechless, HEARING A VOICE, but seeing no man." Here they heard the sound of the voice, but could not distinguish the words as Paul did.

Now in Acts 22:7, Paul says, "And I fell unto the ground and heard a VOICE SAYING unto me, Saul, Saul, why persecutest thou me?" When in Acts 22:9 Paul states they heard not the voice, he is referring to the distinct words of the voice of Christ that he heard. Did you ever hear someone talking but could hear what they were saying? In Acts 9 the men heard someone talking. In Acts 22 they could not hear what Christ was SAYING to Paul.

One thing the whole world can hear and understand is that, "God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son (Christ), that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life." (John 3:16).